Let f be a C3(R) non-negative function,
f(0)=f′(0)=0, 0<f′′(0). Let
g(x)=(f′(x)f(x))′
for x=0 and g(0)=0. Show that g is bounded in some
neighbourhood of 0. Does the theorem hold for f∈C2(R)?
Solution (official)
Let c=21f′′(0). We have
g=2(f′)2f(f′)2−2ff′′,
where
f(x)=cx2+O(x3),f′(x)=2cx+O(x2),f′′(x)=2c+O(x).
Therefore (f′(x))2=4c2x2+O(x3),
2f(x)f′′(x)=4c2x2+O(x3)
and
2(f′(x))2f(x)=2(4c2x2+O(x3))∣x∣c+O(x).g is bounded because
∣x∣32(f′(x))2f(x)x→08c5/2=0
and f′(x)2−2f(x)f′′(x)=O(x3).
The theorem does not hold for some C2-functions.
Let f(x)=(x+∣x∣3/2)2=x2+2x2∣x∣+∣x∣3, so f
is C2. For x>0,
g(x)=21(1+23x1)′=−21⋅(1+23x)21⋅43⋅x1x→0−∞.