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IMC / 1997 / Problems / Day 2, P9

IMC 1997 · Day 2 · P9

Show that n=1(1)n1sin(logn)nα\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n-1} \sin{(\log n)}}{n^\alpha} converges if and only if α>0\alpha > 0.

Solution (official)

Set f(t)=sin(logt)tαf(t) = \dfrac{\sin{(\log t)}}{t^\alpha}. We have f(t)=αtα+1sin(logt)+cos(logt)tα+1.f'(t) = -\frac{\alpha}{t^{\alpha+1}} \sin{(\log t)} + \frac{\cos{(\log t)}}{t^{\alpha+1}}. So f(t)1+αtα+1|f'(t)| \le \dfrac{1+\alpha}{t^{\alpha+1}} for α>0\alpha > 0. Then from Mean value theorem for some θ(0,1)\theta \in (0,1) we get f(n+1)f(n)=f(n+θ)1+αnα+1|f(n+1) - f(n)| = |f'(n+\theta)| \le \dfrac{1+\alpha}{n^{\alpha+1}}. Since 1+αnα+1<+\sum \dfrac{1+\alpha}{n^{\alpha+1}} < +\infty for α>0\alpha > 0 and f(n)n0f(n) \xrightarrow[n \to \infty]{} 0 we get that n=1(1)n1f(n)=n=1(f(2n1)f(2n))\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1} f(n) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} (f(2n-1) - f(2n)) converges.

Now we have to prove that sin(logn)nα\dfrac{\sin{(\log n)}}{n^\alpha} does not converge to 0 for α0\alpha \le 0. It suffices to consider α=0\alpha = 0.

We show that an=sin(logn)a_n = \sin{(\log n)} does not tend to zero. Assume the contrary. There exist knNk_n \in \mathbb{N} and λn[12,12]\lambda_n \in \left[ -\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \right] for n>e2n > e^2 such that lognπ=kn+λn\dfrac{\log n}{\pi} = k_n + \lambda_n. Then an=sinπλn|a_n| = \sin \pi |\lambda_n|. Since an0a_n \to 0 we get λn0\lambda_n \to 0. We have kn+1kn=log(n+1)lognπ(λn+1λn)=1πlog(1+1n)(λn+1λn).\begin{align*} k_{n+1} - k_n &= \frac{\log(n+1) - \log n}{\pi} - (\lambda_{n+1} - \lambda_n) \\ &= \frac{1}{\pi} \log \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right) - (\lambda_{n+1} - \lambda_n). \end{align*} Then kn+1kn<1|k_{n+1} - k_n| < 1 for all nn big enough. Hence there exists n0n_0 so that kn=kn0k_n = k_{n_0} for n>n0n > n_0. So lognπ=kn0+λn\dfrac{\log n}{\pi} = k_{n_0} + \lambda_n for n>n0n > n_0. Since λn0\lambda_n \to 0 we get contradiction with logn\log n \to \infty.

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