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IMC / 1998 / Problems / Day 2, P7

IMC 1998 · Day 2 · P7

linear algebraworth 20 pts

Let VV be a real vector space, and let f,f1,f2,,fkf, f_1, f_2, \dots, f_k be linear maps from VV to R\mathbb{R}. Suppose that f(x)=0f(x) = 0 whenever f1(x)=f2(x)==fk(x)=0f_1(x) = f_2(x) = \dots = f_k(x) = 0. Prove that ff is a linear combination of f1,f2,,fkf_1, f_2, \dots, f_k.

Solution (official)

We use induction on kk. By passing to a subset, we may assume that f1,,fkf_1, \dots, f_k are linearly independent.

Since fkf_k is independent of f1,,fk1f_1, \dots, f_{k-1}, by induction there exists a vector akVa_k \in V such that f1(ak)==fk1(ak)=0f_1(a_k) = \dots = f_{k-1}(a_k) = 0 and fk(ak)0f_k(a_k) \ne 0. After normalising, we may assume that fk(ak)=1f_k(a_k) = 1. The vectors a1,,ak1a_1, \dots, a_{k-1} are defined similarly to get fi(aj)={1if i=j0if ij.f_i(a_j) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } i = j \\ 0 & \text{if } i \ne j. \end{cases} For an arbitrary xVx \in V and 1ik1 \le i \le k, fi(xf1(x)a1f2(x)a2fk(x)ak)=fi(x)j=1kfj(x)fi(aj)=fi(x)fi(x)fi(ai)=0f_i(x - f_1(x) a_1 - f_2(x) a_2 - \dots - f_k(x) a_k) = f_i(x) - \sum\limits_{j=1}^{k} f_j(x) f_i(a_j) = f_i(x) - f_i(x) f_i(a_i) = 0, thus f(xf1(x)a1fk(x)ak)=0f(x - f_1(x) a_1 - \dots - f_k(x) a_k) = 0. By the linearity of ff this implies f(x)=f1(x)f(a1)++fk(x)f(ak)f(x) = f_1(x) f(a_1) + \dots + f_k(x) f(a_k), which gives f(x)f(x) as a linear combination of f1(x),,fk(x)f_1(x), \dots, f_k(x).

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