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IMC / 2003 / Problems / Day 1, P4

IMC 2003 · Day 1 · P4

easy
number theoryworth 20 pts

Determine the set of all pairs (a,b)(a, b) of positive integers for which the set of positive integers can be decomposed into two sets AA and BB such that aA=bBa \cdot A = b \cdot B.

Solution (official)

Clearly aa and bb must be different since AA and BB are disjoint.

Let {a,b}\{a, b\} be a solution and consider the sets AA, BB such that aA=bBa \cdot A = b \cdot B. Denoting d=(a,b)d = (a, b) the greatest common divisor of aa and bb, we have a=da1a = d \cdot a_1, b=db1b = d \cdot b_1, (a1,b1)=1(a_1, b_1) = 1 and a1A=b1Ba_1 \cdot A = b_1 \cdot B. Thus {a1,b1}\{a_1, b_1\} is a solution and it is enough to determine the solutions {a,b}\{a, b\} with (a,b)=1(a, b) = 1.

If 1A1 \in A then aaA=bBa \in a \cdot A = b \cdot B, thus bb must be a divisor of aa. Similarly, if 1B1 \in B, then aa is a divisor of bb. Therefore, in all solutions, one of numbers aa, bb is a divisor of the other one.

Now we prove that if n2n \ge 2, then (1,n)(1, n) is a solution. For each positive integer kk, let f(k)f(k) be the largest non-negative integer for which nf(k)kn^{f(k)} \mid k. Then let A={k:f(k) is odd}A = \{ k : f(k) \text{ is odd} \} and B={k:f(k) is even}B = \{ k : f(k) \text{ is even} \}. This is a decomposition of all positive integers such that A=nBA = n \cdot B.

How the field did

contestants scored
185
average (of 20)
15.25
solved (≥ 80%)
69.2%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
14.1%
discrimination
0.52

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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