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IMC / 2011 / Problems / Day 1, P2

IMC 2011 · Day 1 · P2

Does there exist a real 3×33 \times 3 matrix AA such that tr(A)=0\operatorname{tr}(A) = 0 and A2+At=IA^2 + A^t = I? (tr(A)\operatorname{tr}(A) denotes the trace of AA, AtA^t is the transpose of AA, and II is the identity matrix.)

(Moubinool Omarjee, Paris)

Solution (official)

The answer is NO.

Suppose that tr(A)=0\operatorname{tr}(A) = 0 and A2+At=IA^2 + A^t = I. Taking the transpose, we have A=I(A2)t=I(At)2=I(IA2)2=2A2A4,A = I - (A^2)^t = I - (A^t)^2 = I - (I - A^2)^2 = 2A^2 - A^4, A42A2+A=0.A^4 - 2A^2 + A = 0. The roots of the polynomial x42x2+x=x(x1)(x2+x1)x^4 - 2x^2 + x = x(x-1)(x^2 + x - 1) are 0,1,1±520, 1, \frac{-1 \pm \sqrt{5}}{2} so these numbers can be the eigenvalues of AA; the eigenvalues of A2A^2 can be 0,1,1±520, 1, \frac{1 \pm \sqrt{5}}{2}.

By tr(A)=0\operatorname{tr}(A) = 0, the sum of the eigenvalues is 0, and by tr(A2)=tr(IAt)=3\operatorname{tr}(A^2) = \operatorname{tr}(I - A^t) = 3 the sum of squares of the eigenvalues is 3. It is easy to check that this two

conditions cannot be satisfied simultaneously.

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