Let V=aff{v1,…,v4n−1}. The
statement vi1+⋯+vi2n=0 is
translation-invariant (i.e. replacing the vectors by
v1−a,…,v4n−1−a), so we may assume that
0∈V. Let d=dimV.
Lemma. The vectors can be permuted in such a way that
v1+v2,v3+v4,…,v2d−1+v2d form a basis of
V.
Proof. We prove by induction on d. If d=0 or d=1 then the
statement is trivial.
First choose the vector v1 such a way
that aff(v1,v2,v3,…,v4n−1)=V;
this is possible since V is generated by some d+1 vectors and
we have d+1≤2n<4n−1. Next, choose v2 such that
v2=v1. (By d>0, not all vectors are the same.)
Now let ℓ={0,v1+v2} and let V′=V/ℓ. For any
w∈V, let w~=ℓ+w={w,w+v1+v2} be
the class of the factor space V′ containing w. Apply the
induction hypothesis to the vectors
v~3,…,v~4n−1. Since
dimV′=d−1, the vectors can permuted
in such a way that
v~3+v~4, …,
v~2d−1+v~2d is a basis of V′. Then
v1+v2,v3+v4,…,v2d−1+v2d is a basis of
V.
Now we can assume that
v1+v2,v3+v4,…,v2d−1+v2d is a basis of
V. The vector
w=(v1+v3+⋯+v2d−1)+(v2d+1+v2d+2+⋯+v2n+d) is the sum of 2n
vectors, so w∈V. Hence,
w+ε1(v1+v2)+⋯+εd(v2d−1+v2d)=0 with some
ε1,…,εd∈F2, therefore
i=1∑d((1−εi)v2i−1+εiv2i)+i=2d+1∑2n+dvi=0.
The left-hand side is the sum of 2n vectors.