Does there exist a sequence (an) of complex numbers such that for
every positive integer p we have that
n=1∑∞anp converges if and only if p is
not a prime?
(Proposed by Tomáš Bárta, Charles University, Prague)
Solution (official)
The answer is YES. We prove a more general statement; suppose that
N=C∪D is an arbitrary decomposition of
N into two disjoint sets. Then there exists a sequence
(an)n=1∞ such that
∑n=1∞anp is convergent for p∈C and
divergent for p∈D.
Define Ck=C∩[1,k] and Dk=D∩[1,k].
Lemma. For every positive integer k there exists a positive
integer Nk and a sequence
Xk=(xk,1,…,xk,Nk) of complex numbers with the
following properties:
(a) For p∈Dk, we have
j=1∑Nkxk,jp≥1.
(b) For p∈Ck, we have
j=1∑Nkxk,jp=0; moreover,
j=1∑mxk,jp≤k1
holds for 1≤m≤Nk.
Proof. First we find some complex numbers z1,…,zk with
j=1∑kzjp={01p∈Ckp∈Dk(1)
As is well-known, this system of equations is equivalent to another
system σν(z1,…,zk)=wν
(ν=1,2,…,k) where σν is the νth
elementary symmetric polynomial, and the constants wν are
uniquely determined by the Newton–Waring–Girard formulas. Then the
numbers z1,…,zk are the roots of the polynomial
zk−w1zk−1+−⋯+(−1)kwk
in some order.
Now let
M=⌈1≤m≤k,p∈Ckmaxj=1∑mzjp⌉
and let Nk=k⋅(kM)k. We define the numbers
xk,1,…,xk,Nk by repeating the sequence
(kMz1,kMz2,…,kMzk)(kM)k times, i.e.\
xk,ℓ=kMzj if ℓ≡j(modk). Then we
have
j=1∑Nkxk,jp=(kM)kj=1∑k(kMzj)p=(kM)k−pj=1∑kzjp;
then from (1) the properties (a) and the first part of (b) follows
immediately. For the second part of (b), suppose that
p∈Ck and 1≤m≤Nk; then m=kr+s with some
integers r and 1≤s≤k and hence
j=1∑mxk,jp=j=1∑kr+j=kr+1∑kr+s=j=1∑s(kMzj)p≤(kM)pM≤k1.
The lemma is proved.
Now let Sk=N1+⋯+Nk (we also define S0=0).
Define the sequence (an) by simply concatenating the sequences
X1,X2,…:
(a1,a2,…)=(x1,1,…,x1,N1,x2,1,…,x2,N2,…,xk,1,…,xk,Nk,…);aSk+j=xk+1,j(1≤j≤Nk+1).
If p∈D and k≥p then
j=Sk+1∑Sk+1ajp=j=1∑Nk+1xk+1,jp≥1;
By Cauchy's convergence criterion it follows that
∑anp is divergent.
If p∈C and Su−1<n≤Su with some u≥p then
n=Sp+1∑nanp=k=p+1∑u−1j=1∑Nkxk,jp+j=1∑n−Su−1xu,jp=j=1∑n−Su−1xu,jp≤u1.
Then it follows that
n=Sp+1∑∞anp=0, and thus
n=1∑∞anp=0 is convergent.