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IMC / 2016 / Problems / Day 1, P1

IMC 2016 · Day 1 · P1

easy

Let f:[a,b]Rf : [a, b] \to \mathbb{R} be continuous on [a,b][a, b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a, b). Suppose that ff has infinitely many zeros, but there is no x(a,b)x \in (a, b) with f(x)=f(x)=0f(x) = f'(x) = 0.

(a) Prove that f(a)f(b)=0f(a) f(b) = 0.

(b) Give an example of such a function on [0,1][0, 1].

(Proposed by Alexandr Bolbot, Novosibirsk State University)

Solution (official)

(a) Choose a convergent sequence znz_n of zeros and let c=limzn[a,b]c = \lim z_n \in [a, b]. By the continuity of ff we obtain f(c)=0f(c) = 0. We want to show that either c=ac = a or c=bc = b, so f(a)=0f(a) = 0 or f(b)=0f(b) = 0; then the statement follows.

If cc was an interior point then we would have f(c)=0f(c) = 0 and f(c)=limnf(zn)f(c)znc=limn00znc=0f'(c) = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{f(z_n) - f(c)}{z_n - c} = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{0 - 0}{z_n - c} = 0 simultaneously, contradicting the conditions. Hence, c=ac = a or c=bc = b.

(b) Let f(x)={xsin1xif 0<x10if x=0.f(x) = \begin{cases} x \sin\dfrac{1}{x} & \text{if } 0 < x \le 1 \\ 0 & \text{if } x = 0. \end{cases} This function has zeros at the points 1kπ\dfrac{1}{k\pi} for k=1,2,k = 1, 2, \dots, and it is continuous at 0 as well.

In (0,1)(0, 1) we have f(x)=sin1x1xcos1x.f'(x) = \sin\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{x} \cos\frac{1}{x}. Since sin1x\sin\frac{1}{x} and cos1x\cos\frac{1}{x} cannot vanish at the same point, we have either f(x)0f(x) \ne 0 or f(x)0f'(x) \ne 0 everywhere in (0,1)(0, 1).

How the field did

contestants scored
314
average (of 10)
7.52
solved (≥ 80%)
63.4%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
11.1%
discrimination
0.54

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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