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IMC / 2017 / Problems / Day 2, P6

IMC 2017 · Day 2 · P6

easy

Let f:[0;+)Rf : [0; +\infty) \to \mathbb{R} be a continuous function such that limx+f(x)=L\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = L exists (it may be finite or infinite). Prove that limn01f(nx)dx=L.\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx = L. (Proposed by Alexandr Bolbot, Novosibirsk State University)

Solution 1 of 2 (official)

Case 1: LL is finite. Take an arbitrary ε>0\varepsilon > 0. We construct a number K0K \ge 0 such that 01f(nx)dxL<ε\Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| < \varepsilon.

Since limx+f(x)=L\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = L, there exists a K10K_1 \ge 0 such that f(x)L<ε2\bigl| f(x) - L \bigr| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} for every xK1x \ge K_1. Hence, for nK1n \ge K_1 we have 01f(nx)dxL=1n0nf(x)dxL=1n0n(fL)1n0nfL=1n(0K1fL+K1nfL)<1n(0K1fL+K1nε2)==1n0K1fL+nK1nε2<1n0K1fL+ε2.\begin{align*} \Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| &= \Bigl| \frac1n \int_0^n f(x)\,dx - L \Bigr| = \frac1n \Bigl| \int_0^n \bigl( f - L \bigr) \Bigr| \le \\ &\le \frac1n \int_0^n |f - L| = \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \int_{K_1}^n |f - L| \right) < \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \int_{K_1}^n \frac{\varepsilon}{2} \right) = \\ &= \frac1n \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \frac{n - K_1}{n} \cdot \frac{\varepsilon}{2} < \frac1n \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \frac{\varepsilon}{2}. \end{align*} If nK2=2ε0K1fLn \ge K_2 = \frac{2}{\varepsilon} \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| then the first term is at most ε2\frac{\varepsilon}{2}. Then for xK:=max(K1,K2)x \ge K := \max(K_1, K_2) we have 01f(nx)dxL<ε2+ε2=ε.\Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon.

Case 2: L=+L = +\infty. Take an arbitrary real MM; we need a K0K \ge 0 such that 01f(nx)dx>M\int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx > M for every xKx \ge K.

Since limx+f(x)=\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = \infty, there exists a K10K_1 \ge 0 such that f(x)>M+1f(x) > M + 1 for every xK1x \ge K_1. Hence, for n2K1n \ge 2 K_1 we have 01f(nx)dx=1n0nf(x)dx=1n0nf=1n(0K1f+K1nf)==1n(0K1f+K1n(M+1))=1n(0K1fK1(M+1))+M+1.\begin{align*} \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx = \frac1n \int_0^n f(x)\,dx = \frac1n \int_0^n f &= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f + \int_{K_1}^n f \right) = \\ &= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f + \int_{K_1}^n (M + 1) \right)

= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f - K_1 (M + 1) \right) + M + 1. \end{align*} If nK2:=0K1fK1(M+1)n \ge K_2 := \Bigl| \int_0^{K_1} f - K_1 (M + 1) \Bigr| then the first term is at least 1-1. For xK:=max(K1,K2)x \ge K := \max(K_1, K_2) we have 01f(nx)dx>M\int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx > M.

Case 3: L=L = -\infty. We can repeat the steps in Case 2 for the function f-f.

Solution 2 of 2 (official)

Let F(x)=0xfF(x) = \int_0^x f. For t>0t > 0 we have 01f(tx)dx=F(t)t.\int_0^1 f(tx)\,dx = \frac{F(t)}{t}. Since limtt=\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} t = \infty in the denominator and limtF(t)=limtf(t)=L\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} F'(t) = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} f(t) = L, L'Hospital's rule proves limtF(t)t=limtF(t)1=limtf(t)1=L\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{F(t)}{t} = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{F'(t)}{1} = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{f(t)}{1} = L. Then it follows that limnF(n)n=L\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{F(n)}{n} = L.

How the field did

contestants scored
315
average (of 10)
8.01
solved (≥ 80%)
73.0%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
8.9%
discrimination
0.35

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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