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IMC / 2022 / Problems / Day 1, P1

IMC 2022 · Day 1 · P1

easy

Let f:[0,1](0,)f : [0, 1] \to (0, \infty) be an integrable function such that f(x)f(1x)=1f(x) \cdot f(1 - x) = 1 for all x[0,1]x \in [0, 1]. Prove that 01f(x)dx1.\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx \ge 1. (proposed by Mike Daas, Universiteit Leiden)

Solution 1 of 2 (official)

Hint: Apply the AM–GM inequality.

By the AM–GM inequlity we have f(x)+f(1x)2f(x)f(1x)=2.f(x) + f(1 - x) \ge 2 \sqrt{f(x) f(1 - x)} = 2. By integrating in the interval [0,12][0, \frac12] we get 01f(x)dx=012f(x)dx+012f(1x)dx=012(f(x)+f(1x))dx0122dx=1.\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx = \int_0^{\frac12} f(x)\,dx + \int_0^{\frac12} f(1 - x)\,dx = \int_0^{\frac12} \bigl( f(x) + f(1 - x) \bigr)\,dx \ge \int_0^{\frac12} 2\,dx = 1.

Solution 2 of 2 (official)

From the condition, we have 01f(x)dx=01f(1x)dx=011f(x)dx\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx = \int_0^1 f(1 - x)\,dx = \int_0^1 \frac{1}{f(x)}\,dx and hence, using the positivity of ff, the claim follows since (01f(x)dx)2=01f(x)dx011f(x)dx(011dx)21\left( \int_0^1 f(x)\,dx \right)^2 = \int_0^1 f(x)\,dx \cdot \int_0^1 \frac{1}{f(x)}\,dx \ge \left( \int_0^1 1\,dx \right)^2 \ge 1 by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

How the field did

contestants scored
589
average (of 10)
8.86
solved (≥ 80%)
86.2%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
6.8%
discrimination
0.25

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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